Answer
Short Answer: We should draw the same distinction between the Bible only existing as a Greek translation (and not in the language that Jesus spoke) and translations made from it leading to many versions in English at least. You may argue that verses have been changed or even removed but what is the point when the original doesn’t exist. We already know there has been human interference, this just becomes nitpicking.
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Wa Alaykum Assalam Dear Brother,
Thank you for this question, it comes up very often in one form or another.
This is the second part of your answer, the first part is published here.
There have been other revisions with the latest being 2001 CE.
The Bible does not exist in the language it was revealed
Personally, I believe all these versions are acceptable. Why? Because we have translations of the Quran but NONE of the translations are the Quran as that only exists in Arabic. This is what we should be arguing, that the Bible does not exist in the language in which it was revealed.
Therefore, as we know, no translation of the Quran can be considered a standard as there are many versions. For the Quran we have Yusuf Ali and Marmaduke Pickthall as the early translations, but there are many more. Do we say these are corrupt? No! We draw a distinction between the original and the translations.
We should draw the same distinction between the Bible only existing as a Greek translation (and not in the language that Jesus spoke) and translations made from it leading to many versions in English at least.
You may argue that verses have been changed or even removed but what is the point when the original doesn’t exist. We already know there has been human interference, this just becomes nitpicking.
A better question perhaps: Why is the longer ending of the Gospel according to Mark still retained in Bibles, when it is admitted that this longer ending is not in the most ancient manuscripts. (Hint: the field workers require it.)
The Christians believe that the Bible was written by men inspired by God
The Christians believe that the Bible was written by men inspired by God. In a red letter Bible (NT) the words attributed to Jesus (peace be upon him) and which offer good teachings are in red. Nearly all the words in red are found in the four Gospels.
For further reference: You can search the Internet for Preface to the ESV Bible 1880, 1885, 2001, the Preface to the AV Bible 1611, and the Preface to the RSV Bible 1952, 1971.
Or, presumably, you could search for the Preface to the Bible of your choice.
You ask about the “Quran verses 3:3-4 that Allah Himself saying that it is a true scripture”.
{Step by step has He bestowed upon thee from on high this divine writ, setting forth the truth which confirms whatever there still remains [of earlier revelations] for it is He Who has bestowed from on high the Torah and the Injil aforetime, as a guidance unto mankind, and it is He Who has bestowed [upon man] the standard by which to discern the truth from the false.
Behold! As for those who are bent on denying God’s messages – grievous suffering awaits them; for God is almighty, an avenger of evil.} [The Message of the Quran translated by Muhammad Asad, Surah al-Imran 3:3 – 4]
This refers to the actual revelation given to the prophets (in their own language) which we would accept if we knew it. Where the Bible agrees with the Quran we accept it, but we cannot say where it doesn’t agree that it is from God.
That’s why I prefer to use “Injil” for the revelation to Jesus (peace be upon him) that was in his own language and Bible for the Greek and the translations derived from it.
I hope this helps answer your question.
Salam and please keep in touch.
(From Ask About Islam archives)