Dear Brothers/Sisters,
Thank you very much for joining us in this Live Fatwa session. We would like also to thank our guest, Sheikh Ahmad Kutty, for answering the questions directed to him. You will find the answers of your questions below.
Wednesday, Jul. 05, 2017 | 20:00 - 22:00 Makkah | 17:00 - 19:00 GMT
Session is over.
Dear Brothers/Sisters,
Thank you very much for joining us in this Live Fatwa session. We would like also to thank our guest, Sheikh Ahmad Kutty, for answering the questions directed to him. You will find the answers of your questions below.
I have a friend (who's also my roommate) who started praying regularly around a year after I did. Which means I pronounce the words in Arabic better than him (Arabic is not our native language), even though none of us knows how to read in Arabic but I have more experience and new languages are kind of my thing. Now I have two questions. Am I obligated to lead the prayers when I'm with him only? Because I heard that the one who pronounces the suras and all the prayers during a prayer should lead. We think that this is the truth so that's why most of the time I lead. But he has this problem that bothers me and distracts me a lot of times when we pray together, he doesn't just move his lips but he whispers the words too loud that I hear him almost always what he says, which sometimes makes me make some mistakes, I have to start from the beginning the sura or whatever I'm saying at that moment. I told him that it isn't OK to bug others while praying. But he says that he tried once being really silent but he doubted that he pronounced the words well. He thought he was making mistakes. I complained to him to try more but he's just so stubborn and we argue a lot about this and other stuff too. He asked me what to do then? And if I cannot bare him whispering that loud, then we should pray apart and aside from each-other, that's what he proposed. He's so stubborn and almost never listens to my advices. He trusts only what imams and scholars say. That's why I'm writing you so when you post this I will show the answer to him. So what should he do? If I lead him should he keep his mouth shut since he cannot pray silently enough? Or can he lead me too even though he makes some mistakes while pronouncing? This way even if he interrupts me maybe it won't be a big deal since he's leading? Or it doesn't matter who's leading who as long as none of us distracts the other. Is there any specific hadith about people who whisper out loud and divert the attention of the others? Is this dangerous in Islam? Like a sin or something?
While praying in a group, we are not allowed to disturb others by reading aloud; rather one should read only within our minds by moving lips without making annoying sounds.
The Prophet (peace be upon him) said, “Remember every one of you is communing with His Lord while praying; so no one should disturb another by reading the Qur’an aloud.”
Therefore, your friend should learn to read in his mind by moving his lips only for him to hear the words and not disturb you.
If you do not stop doing that, he is disobeying the Prophet (peace be upon him), and you should pray by yourself.
Allah Almighty knows best.
Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.
It is up to you to decide whether you want to get married or not and to choose as to when to do so. Marriage is a mandatory obligation only when you find yourself unable to guard yourself against falling into sins.
For details, let me cite here one of my earlier answers:
Although marriage is generally considered a highly recommended act, yet from the point of view of fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence)—because of diverse circumstances—it can readily fall into one of the four categories listed below: Fard (obligatory) or mustahabb (recommended) or haram (forbidden) or simply halal (permitted).
1- Marriage is considered fard (obligatory) if a person is so tormented by sexual desire that he/she fears falling into the sin of fornication. Since staying away from fornication is obligatory, and since marriage is the only avenue for legitimate sexual satisfaction, it becomes obligatory on such a person to get married. This is based on the principle in jurisprudence that says: “If an obligatory thing cannot be fulfilled except by fulfilling another, then fulfilling the latter becomes equally obligatory.”
2- If, however, he or she is not so tormented by sexual desire, and, hence, there is no fear of falling into sin, then it is highly recommended to get married if one has the means to do so. By doing so, one is fulfilling one of the great Sunnahs of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), our perfect role model.
3- If a person knows for certain that he or she cannot fulfill the duties required in marriage, and there is no fear of his/her falling into sin, then it becomes haram for such a person to get married. Islam forbids us from doing injustice to another person; this would definitely be the case if one were to neglect his/her spousal duties.
4- If a person has no means to marry and is, therefore, incapable of fulfilling his spousal duties, but has strong desire, it is permitted for him to get married—provided he tries earnestly to seek an honest source of living. Allah has promised to help such a person. We must also add here a further note that the Muslim community has a duty to assist such people until such time that they become self-reliant.
5- If, however, no such measures are available, and a person finds himself unable to fulfill his spousal duties, he is advised to curb his desires through the discipline of fasting and other acts of sublimation.”
In conclusion, you are allowed to postpone marriage to take care of your parents – if you have no fear of falling into sins.
Allah Almighty knows best.
Asalamu alaikumI am a Muslim lady and each month before my menstruation start, I have this dark solid discharge for like 24 to 48 hours before the blood start flowing. I usually stop praying or fasting immediately I spot this. Am I right doing this or I have to only stop when the actual blood start flowing.Also I read something on the internet and I need clarification on it. Is it true that in Islam a man can sexual intercourse with his dead wife up to 6 hours before she is buried and did the prophet practice this.Thank you.
Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.
Let me answer your questions in their respective order:
1- The appearance of white discharges at the end of the period is an indication of the expiry of the menses. You should determine the end of your period based on your regular pattern of menses. The pattern may vary, as some women experience menses for seven or eight days, while others may experience it for less or more. Once you see the clear white discharge at the end of your regular pattern, you need not worry about the streaks of blood after. If, on the other hand, the white discharges did not appear, then the blood drops you experience are due to continuation of menses –unless the bleeding exceeds fifteen days.
The Prophet’s wife Aishah –as reported in the authentic sources –counseled menstruating women to wait for the appearance of clear white discharge to mark the end of menses.
We further learn from Umm Atiyyah: During the Prophet, peace be upon him, women did not pay any attention to the brownish or pinkish streaks of blood, following the expiry of the menses (as determined by the appearance of clear white discharge at the end of the period).
Therefore, you should wait for the clear white discharge to appear at the end of your period before you make ghusl. If you do not see it, then you ought to make ghusl only if your bleeding exceeds fifteen days. The cut off point for the period is fifteen days; so what one experiences afterwards cannot be reckoned as menses; rather it is due to the chronic condition known as istihadah. In the case of istihadhah, you ought to perform ghusl at the expiry of the period of menses (fifteen days is the maximum ). Once you do so, you only need to wash your private, wear a pad and perform wudhu immediately prior to each salah.
2- I do not know the source of this ridiculous ruling comes from: it is at once loathsome and an abomination. Sexual intimacy between spouses is an act based on mutual consent and feelings of affection. The Prophet (peace be upon him) taught us to engage in sexual intercourse after foreplay. So, to contemplate having intercourse with one’s dead wife is at once repugnant to reason and sound teaching of Scripture. May Allah save us from such warped interpretations.
Allah Almighty knows best.
Assalaamwaalyakum. Just couple of days ago, i saw angel of death in my dream, but i got the feeling in dream that he was indeed angel of death. I'm not sure if it was angel of death or angel of hell. I'll describe him : He wore black clothes, hooded thobe that covered him from head to toe. I couldn't see his face because the hood overshadowed his face. He also had a long stick in his left hand. He also had two more angels besides him; one on right and one on left. They too were wearing black clothes but thier faces were visible. They looked like human, fair complexion, but they gave no expressions whatsoever. The angel of death was taller than both those angels. I was in a boutique shop, that had glass display, and those angels were across the street. They were just staring at me. And someone inside the boutique kept reciting the dua beside me that saves from fire of hell. And it felt like they were reciting it for me and wanted me to recite it too. I too kept looking at those angels and kept reciting that dua. Repeating after them. This happened at two places in the same dream. I was on my 5th or 6th day of periods.. if that helps explaining the dream in any way. What does my dream means? I do pray 5 times a day Alhumdulillah. I read Quran for as long as i understand what I'm reading. Is this some kind of warning to me? Is my death nearing and I should keep seeking protection from fire of hell or is it that Allah swt is taking me away from sins? Too much confused.
Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.
These dreams may be a reminder or warning for you.
For details on an Islamic perspective on dreams, let me cite here one of my earlier answers:
“Dreams, as we can safely infer from the Islamic sources, are of three types:
The first of these is termed mubashshiraat, which are sound dreams that are indicative of glad tidings. They result from angelic inspirations or suggestions cast by Allah in our consciousness. Referring to such dreams, the Prophet (peace be on him) said: “Nothing of the prophecy remains now (i.e. after his own call to prophethood) except sound visions, which are bestowed on a righteous believer, and it constitutes one thirtieth of prophecy.”
This type of dream can include premonitions or intimations of things that might happen in the future. For instance, a believer may experience a vision about his own imminent death, or some future events to occur, or receive some confirmation of his spiritual states, or even reminders/admonitions about his omissions or commissions. These may include visions of Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon him) or other prophets and communications with them, or visions of symbols of Islam such as the Ka`bah or the Prophet’s mosque, etc.
A second type of dream is the result of Satanic whisperings or inspirations. Satan, the avowed enemy of man, is ever-present with us and he sees us in ways that we do not see him. Unless we take proper safeguards against him and such inspirations, he may trap us in his nets. He inspires in us all kinds of thoughts and suggestions, both in conscious and unconscious states. A person may be predisposed to such Satanic visions and inspirations if he is constantly exposed to sights, sounds and thoughts that are obscene or filthy.
A third type of dream can be termed as ‘idle dreams’, and they are due to the impact of unpalatable foods, or the over-exercise of one’s imaginations, or experiences in life which might also be reflected in one’s dreams.
A person experiencing a good vision is encouraged to share it with others—especially with those who are trustworthy and God-fearing; but if he/she experiences a bad dream, he/she is advised against disclosing it to anyone. In the latter case, immediately after experiencing such a dream, he/she is recommended to change the sleeping position, and seek refuge and protection in Allah by saying the following supplication:
“Bismillahi alladhi laa yadurru ma` ismihi shay’un fi al-ardi wa laa fi as-samaa’i wahuwa as-sami`ul `alim (In the name of Allah; with His name nothing whatsoever on earth or heaven can do any harm; He is the all-Hearing, and the all-Knowing).”
Referring to this, the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said, “Thus he/she will be spared of any possible harm.”
While the first type of dream (i.e. mubashshiraat) is what every believer should seek and strive for, he/she must surely guard against the second type of dream.
The surest way to block Satanic inspirations and whisperings is by taking refuge in Allah and through cultivating the habit of consistency in dhikr, right thinking, right living and right conduct. It is, therefore, highly recommended to go to bed in a state of purity, after having recited portions of the Qur’an (such as surahs al-Fatihah, al-Ikhlaas, al-Falaq and al-Nas as well as Aayat al-Kursi), and to immerse oneself in dhikr and salah (i.e. saying blessings and sending salutations) on the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) before one lapses into a state of sound sleep.
Allah Almighty knows best.
Assalamualaikum,I'm a revert of 15 years and 1 thing that has also bothered me was the rule on when to stop eating. I read many fatwa and have spoken to different Muslims from different countries and all the same "stopped eating at fajr" but the Quran clearly states from when the "white thread of light". The fFajr Adhan happens scientifically 1 hour before this. So we are really not fasting from sunrise to sunset and it just doesn't make sense. Especially when you wake up 2 mins after the time table say it is fajr... and you end up fasting more than 24 hours... I need clarification. The prophet practices minutes before fajr but the Quran clear states differently !!Thank you.
Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.
You need not be overly confused about this issue, for it is merely a difference of opinion based on the distinction between what is preferred and what is merely permissible.
There is no doubt that the cut-off point for consuming sahur is the arrival of dawn (i.e., Fajr time). However, the preferred time for abstention is 10 or 15 minutes earlier than that.
The basis for establishing the preferred time of abstention (imsak) is an authentic tradition from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him). One of his Companions narrated the story of taking sahur with the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him). Upon hearing it, someone asked him, “What was the time gap between your sahur and Fajr Salah?” He replied, “The time required to read fifty verses of the Qur’an.” It is estimated that this time can be 10 or 15 minutes and not more.
This, therefore, is the basis for the imsak time you are used to in Turkey. However, it must be pointed out that the above-mentioned hadith does not state that it is not permissible to consume sahur later than that, for it only states that it was the sunnah of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him).
As for the permissibility of consuming sahur until the arrival of dawn, it has been established by the clear text of the Qur’an: “Eat and drink until the white thread of dawn becomes distinct from the black thread of night.” (Al-Baqarah 2:187)
Allah Almighty knows best.
One of my friend just worried about her personal issue, she had fight with her husband and she was about to leave home and he said to her if she stepped toward door he will divorce to her thrice.( agr tum ne door ke tarf gai tu meri tarf s tumhain 3 divorced hn) but she not went out and came back.Now she is confused that if ever she will steps out divorce will be happen. Notes Her husband already sorry to her and told her that he took back his word in heart when he delivered these words. * he said if she will go toward outside then it's 3 times divorced to her. He not said if she will go this time.
If he uttered these words in a state of extreme anger and he had no prior intention of divorcing you, then the divorce did not take place.
If your husband never had the intention to divorce you and never even contemplated divorcing you and he made the above statement in a state of extreme anger, then it cannot be deemed as a valid divorce.
The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said, “Actions are judged by intentions.” Moreover, you stated that you made the statement in a state of extreme anger.
The Prophet (peace be upon him) is reported to have said, “There is no (valid) divorce in an extreme state of anger”.
He said so because, in such a state, a person is not in his right mind; rather he may be unsure and unaware of his words and actions.
In this sense, he is no different than a drunkard whose actions are not considered valid in Islam. Since marriage in Islam is a solemn contract, it cannot be invalidated by such whimsical words or actions.
If there are outstanding issues between you and your husband and you are not able to sort them out, you should resort to counseling. If you can find qualified and knowledgeable people who have experience in the field then get their help. That is the way to deal with problems in marriage rather than resorting to emotional outbursts and using the word of talaq to intimidate or take revenge.
Using the words of Talaq in this way is akin to jesting with the laws of Allah which are instituted for the purpose of restoring justice, equity and balance in settling human affairs.
May Allah guide all of us to be truthful in our words and actions and may He save us all against the evil inclinations embedded in our nature – Ameen.
For details, please refer to the answers posted on this site.
Allah Almighty knows best.