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Live Fatwa (General Session)

 

Dear Brothers/Sisters,

 

Thank you very much for joining us in this Live Fatwa session. We would like also to thank our guest, Dr. Mohammad S. Alrahawan, for answering the questions directed to him. You will find the answers of your questions below.

Wednesday, May. 31, 2017 | 22:00 - 23:59 GMT

Session is over.
DISCLAIMER
Views expressed by hosts/guests on this program (live dialogue, Facebook sessions, etc.) are their own and their appearance on the program does not imply an endorsement of them or any entity they represent.  

Assalam u Alaikum. I really like this girl although she does not, but I've been making dua to Allah(swt) to create His love in both our hearts first above every other love, then Rasool Allah(saww)'s love, and then love for each other, but before that I ask Allah to make us both pious and rightly guided muslims and enter us both in JannatulFirdaus and marry us both in JannatulFirdaus. I am asking Allah to give her to me in Jannah, as a faithful woman is greater than the Hoors of Jannah, which is why I pray to Allah to help us both become faithful momins in this world. Since it is necessary for us to be married in this world if we are to be married in Jannah, I pray to Allah to marry us both in this world too. There might be imperfections in this world and something might not be good for us but thats not the case in Jannah. Everything would be good for us in Jannah, so I make dua to Allah to make us spouses in Jannah and for that purpose in this world. Is is okay to make this dua, because I feel I have the purest of intentions if Immaking this dua and Im asking everything that I am asking for myself for her as well. Please respond. Jazak Allah. We rarely speak and I also have no issues in not speaking to her as I know that isn't permitted in Islam. I'd want to marry her first.



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

There is no problem in making du`aa’ in whatever words and wishes you have as long as it does not contradict a divine instruction in the Qur’an or Hadith such as paying against someone or in a way that dissevers one’s relation to his kith and kin. There are other conditions for an accepted du`aa’. They are as follows:

1- Yaqeen or (certainty) that Allah will answer your call

2- Having patience when making du`aa’. The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “One of you may be answered so long as he is not hasty and says, ‘I said du`aa’ but I got no response.’” (Al-Bukhaari and Muslim)

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3- Abu Hurairah (may Allah be pleased with him) reported: The Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him), “The supplication of every one of you will be granted if he does not get impatient and say (for example): `I supplicated my Rubb but my prayer has not been granted’.” (Al-Bukhari and Muslim).

4- Eating Halal. Prophet (peace be upon him) said, “…a man having been on a long journey is all disheveled and dust-coated and he stretches his hands upwards for du`aa’ (saying): ‘O my Lord! 0 my Lord!’ while his food is haram (unlawful), his drink: haram, his dress: haram, and he himself was brought up on the haram – how then, could his du’a become worth accepting?” (Muslim)

 

Allah Almighty knows best.


Assalamualaikum brother.Why Islam prohibits agricultural equipment in houses?Narrated Abu Umama al-Bahili: I saw some agricultural equipment and said: "I heard the Prophet (ﷺ) saying: "There is no house in which these equipment enters except that Allah will cause humiliation to enter it." Sahih al-Bukhari 2321 In-book : Book 41.Can you give me clear explanation about above hadees?



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

This hadith is authentic and is related by Al-Bukhari. It is preceded by another hadith in which the Prophet said, “No Muslim plants a plant or sows a crop, then a person, or a bird, or an animal eats from it, except that it will be charity for him.” (Al-Bukhari)

 

Scholars explained the first hadith to mean that the Prophet warned Muslims against fully relying on agriculture which may affect their moving around seeking the pleasure of Allah in spreading the message of Islam or struggling against the disbelievers.

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This is better understood in the context of the report of Ibn `Umar who narrated that I heard the Messenger of Allah, (peace be upon him) saying: “When you enter into the `inah transaction [a usurious type of sale], hold the tails of oxen, are pleased with agriculture, and give up conducting jihad (struggle in the way of Allah). Allah will make disgrace prevail over you, and will not withdraw it until you return to your original religion.” (Ahmad)

Holding tails of oxen refers to tyrannical rulers who oppress their fellows and humiliate them.

Allah Almighty knows best.


I have a severe neck issue that is pinching my spinal cord, the pain is intense,constant and debilitating if I do not take medicine 4 times a day I am unable to function or work. Am I permitted to forgo fasting in order to take my meds and continue to function and work? Or must I try to forgo the meds and fast??



You are permitted to break your fast to take medication and feed one needy person for each day you miss.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Assalam one of my friend asks me that he lives in a non Islamic country and he has the problem of ejaculation he is saying that when my see a girl sometime a drop of my sperm will came out and he has some ejaculation problem also does he must do ghusl before the prayer or only wudu is correcr jazzakallhukhyran assalam u alikum



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

He must make a full ritual bath on each time he ejaculates. You should also advise him to lower his gaze and to protect his chastity by getting married. If he is not able to do so, he should keep fasting.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Salam, I have health issues which makes me much more prone to dehydration (and all its side effects) more than the common person. I will not go into more detail about my health issue but this one part is what concerns me. I know I will not be able to make it till 8:15-8:30 in the heat of June without passing out (I have had this happen before). I do want to fast. I guess I should ask,water in my case is not allowed at all? If there is no exception, would I be able to make up my fast for another month.



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

The Qur’an provided exceptions for those who are ill, “[Fasting for] a limited number of days. So whoever among you is ill or on a journey [during them] – then an equal number of days [are to be made up]. And upon those who are able [to fast, but with hardship] – a ransom [as substitute] of feeding a poor person [each day]. And whoever volunteers excess – it is better for him. But to fast is best for you, if you only knew.” (Al-Baqarah 2:184)

Scholars defined the type of an illness that allows a Muslim to break his fast. Fasting should cause an increase in an existing illness or a delay of recovery or brings up a great difficulty for a fasting person.

If dehydration due to fasting will badly affect your health or increase your illness, you can break your fast and make up those days you have missed later.
If you are not able to fast in other days, you can feed a needy person for each day you are going to miss.

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Allah Almighty knows best.


SalamI noticed that many youths these days, to tolerate the long hot days during fast, sleep till well past noon and some will sleep again....for hours. Then stay up all night. Sadly, there are jokes and memes about this and it seems to be more common than not. What is the rule of naps and sleeping during Ramadan? As for those who do sleep the day away, do their fast count? Thanks,



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

Scholars are unanimous to the effect that if a fasting person wakes up during the day, even if it is for a single moment, his fasting is valid. If he does not wake up even for a second by spending the whole day sleeping but he has already intended fasting during night, the majority of scholars maintain that his fasting is still valid.

Allah Almighty knows best.


AsalamuAlaykum,When I lived in the Southwest burbs, I used to be a member of the Bridgeview mosque long ago. I am familiar with the 2 methods practiced to determine Eid. Since the skies and weather in Chicago, are so very unpredictable and very low visibility, it's good to know there is a valid option that is very applicable for the times. Unfortunately, this mosque and I believe Orland's follows the decisions made by Saudi Arabia. I have asked about this before and never received a response. Could the Sheikh clarify for this reason?Shukran,



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

Fasting becomes mandatory when one of these three things occurs: the completion of thirty days of the Islamic month of Sha`ban, the sighting of the crescent moon of Ramadan, or the presence of clouds on the night of the thirtieth of Sha`ban that prevents its sighting.

 

The Prophet (peace be upon him) has been reported as saying, “If there are clouds obstructing your view, (uqduroo) for it.” The word uqduroo can mean ‘estimate,’ which is the meaning used by those who advocate using calculations to determine when Ramadan begins and ends. It can also mean ‘limit it,’ which would mean limiting Sha`ban to 29 days in favor of Ramadan (in other words, not losing any of its days).

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The correct understanding of the word was mentioned by the Prophet (peace be upon him) himself when he said: “Consider Sha`ban to be thirty days.”

 

Therefore, as Muslims, we are presumed to start fasting when two trustworthy Muslims bear witness that they have already seen the crescent of Ramadan provided that the place where they sighted the moon shares a part of night with where we are fasting.

 

It is not a matter of political affiliation or following a certain country. I think some people follow Saudi Arabia because people there confirm that they follow the legal sighting of the moon.

 

Allah Almighty knows best.

 


Salm, my question is that "where will i face if i am opportune to perform a prayer (salat) inside the holy ka'aba" wasslam



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

If you pray inside the Ka’bah you can face any direction therein provided that you face any of its walls from inside.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Assalamualaikum brother.SahihBukhari, Volume 4, Book 55, Number 636: Narrated Abu Dhaar: I said, "O Allah's Apostle! Which mosque was built first?" He replied, "Al-Masjid-ul-Haram." I asked, "Which (was built) next?" He replied, "Al-Masjid-ul-Aqs-a (i.e. Jerusalem)." I asked, "What was the period in between them?" He replied, "Forty (years)." He then added, "Wherever the time for the prayer comes upon you, perform the prayer, for all the earth is a place of worshipping for you."Is this hadith authentic? 40 years only difference between build the Kaaba and aqsa mosque?? How can it is possible??



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

The Hadith is authentic. It is related by Al-Bukhari. Scholars maintained that it refers to the first set up of foundations by Adam and his offspring. Later, the foundations of the Ka`bah have been raised by Abraham while the foundations of Al-Aqsa have been raised by Solomon. The second building of Al-Aqsa has been explained in the Hadith of the Prophet, “When Sulaiman bin Dawud finished building Bait Al-Maqdis, he asked Allah for three things: Judgement that was in harmony with His judgement, and he was given that. And he asked Allah for a dominion that no one after him would have, and he was given that. And when he finished building the Masjid he asked Allah, the Mighty and Sublime, that no one should come to it, intending only to pray there, but he would emerge free of sin as the day his mother bore him.” (Al-Nasa’i)

Allah Almighty knows best.


AssalamualaikumIs zakat due on women's jewelry?



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

Any jewelry kept for storage or investment purposes is Zakatable. The reason is that it falls under the category of an investment. However, if the jewelry is kept for personal use, then it is not zaktable according to the majority of scholars including, Maliki, Shafi`i and Hanbali schools of law.

 

They further set up other conditions for jewelry to be exempted from Zakah. They must be lawful to use, i.e. golden watches used by men are zaktable because men are not allowed to use gold. Jewelry not subject to Zakah include gold and silver used as ornaments. If they are stored for their value or used for investment, they become subject to Zakah.

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Allah Almighty knows best.


Salam I have heard of an opportunity to work as an insurance broker, would this job be permissible in Canada? I know it is haram to be a witness/sign/write interest based contracts but not sure if this would take a significant role in this job? Generally is it permissible to be an insurance broker?



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

Commercial insurance is prohibited in Islam due to a number of reasons:

  1. It mostly involves usurious interest.
  2. It includes some forms of gambling.
  3. It includes transactions which have forms of uncertainty.

As long as it is haram to have or deal with commercial insurance, it becomes impermissible to work in an insurance company which provides all or any forms of unlawful transactions.

Allah Almighty knows best.

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As'salamualykum,My son will be soon traveling from California to Australia Insha'Allah. I have read two fatwas on the salah timings he'll follow in the plane.1. Follow the timings of one's hometown until one reaches his destination without any interruption2. Follow the timings of the country one is flying overThe first one looks easy, but the second one looks difficult. Please clarify.Jazak Allah



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

He should follow the timings of the country he is flying over. He may pray both Zhuhr and `Asr at the time of any of them and he can also pray Maghrib and `Ishaa’ together at the time of any of them. In this case, he may pray in advance or delay any of those prayers.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Assalamoalaicoum! A Muslim woman is divorced, she has a son 11 y.o., but her husband took the boy and prevented him from seeing his mother for 5 years. The woman communicates with her son secretly at school and the boy expresses wish to live with his mother. Is it ok to resort to a secular (Russian) court to resolve this problem? Jazakumullahkhairan.



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

In case it is not possible for a Muslim woman to claim her full rights of seeing her son regularly through Islamic courts, she may refer to secular courts provided that she does not ask for anything beyond her clearly prescribed according to Shari’ah.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Assalamualaicoum! Please, enlighten, if pronounciation mistakes make namaz void or not? For instance, I did not know how to pronounce "gh" correctly, so I pronounced it as "g" during my namaz recitations. Is my namaz void? What should I do?



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

If this mistake is beyond your capacity and it does not change the meaning while reciting al-Fatihah, which is the minimum obligation, your prayer is correct, but you should not be an imam for others in congregation, especially those who are more learned than you.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Muhtaram,Assalamualaikum. I am from Bangladesh. On 10th May 2017 Shab-E-Barat will be held in my country. From my childhood I have been observing various types of rituals on this day. Nowadays, scholars are divided regarding this day. As a result, common Muslims are confused that what they should do on this day, how do they celebrate this day or whether it is significant or not. Would you please, let us tell that how Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) observed this day?JajakallahKhair.



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

There is no evidence in the authentic Sunnah whereby the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) or his noble companions celebrated or commemorated the night of Shabe-Baraat, nor did he (peace be upon him) ever offer any special prayers on this night, nor did he ever command the believers to do anything special on this night.

 Allah Almighty knows best.


Sallam, please I want to know if I pray my wife after isha and go to sleep and I happen to wake in the night to pee then decide to pray two rakaat of prayer could that be referred to as tahajjud, as I always make the intention of praying nawafilllayl



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

Technically waking up at night time to make prayers is called tahajjud. It is recommended to offer prayers at any part of the night even if before going to bed. What you do with your wife is a highly rewarded act of worship.

 

Abu Hurairah (May Allah be pleased with him) reported: The Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) said, “May Allah show mercy to a man who gets up during the night and performs Salat, awakens his wife to pray and if she refuses, he sprinkles water on her face (to make her get up). May Allah show mercy to a woman who gets up during the night and performs Salat, awakens her husband for the same purpose; and if he refuses, she sprinkles water on his face.” (Abu Dawud)

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Allah Almighty knows best.


Is there any difference between the way a man prays salaah and the way a woman prays salaah!!if there is how should a woman pray salaah?? I'm confused because i have learned different views on it and i really cannot decide which one to follow! Hoping to get the answer Inshaallah



The default rule is that men and women pray in the same manner without any differences. This is a general rule in all affairs. This is based on the Hadith of the Prophet, “Women are the twin halves of men.” (Aḥmad) It has been graded as an authentic hadith.

When there is a difference between them, there must be an evidence from the Qur’an or the Sunnah to prove that.

Scholars, based on evidences, identified certain areas of differences between men and women in prayer. They are as follows:

  1. A woman is not supposed to recite adhan (prayer call) or iqamah in the presence of men. This is based on consensus which is related by Ibn Qudamah in Al-Mughni, 1:419.
  2. A woman cannot be an imam in congregation.
  3. The whole body of a woman should be covered during prayer except the face and hands. This is based on the hadith of the Prophet, “No prayer will be accepted from an adult woman unless she wears a khimar (head-cover)”. There is a disagreement among scholars as to whether her heels and feet should be covered.
  4. Imam Ash-Shafi`i maintained that women should keep the parts of their bodies close to one another, and they should make their stomachs touch their thighs during sujood. This is more covering and preferable, in ruku` and the rest of the prayer too. (An-Nawawi, Majmu` 3:429)
  5. Congregational prayer is not required of women.
  6. The imam of a group of women stands in the middle of the first row. If one woman and one man are praying, she should stand behind him, not next to him.
  7. If women are praying in rows behind men, the back rows are better for them than the front rows.
  8. When the imam commits an error during prayer, women are supposed to clap by placing the left hand on the back of her right hand’s wrist.

 

Allah Almighty knows best.

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Assalam o alekumwarehmatullahwabarakaat I have a question that is worrying me so much that i cannot sleep. I am alhamdolillah a practicing muslim and regard and follow religious duties very dutifully. Yesterday i went to a spa for a massage, after coming back from a tiring trip. I usually go to the same place for relaxing massage due to its professionalism and only get services from male messuse. Yesterday, during the massage by the male messuse, I got arroused and without being touched by him or myself, i had an orgasm. Now, i am so worried that i have committed a great sin that i have never done before in my life. I am married and very faithful to my wife and this has happened for the first time ever. Please guide me in the light of sunnah what should i do? Has this act fallen to the category of zinna? What remedy is available to compensate for this sin? I had no intention, what so ever, to experience this outcome. Please help me.



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

Massage made by a male for a male is permissible provided that there is no touching of areas that must be covered. This is based on the hadith of of Abu Al-`Aliyah who reported:

Ibn Ziyad delayed the prayer. `Abdullah b. Samit came to me and I placed a chair for him and he sat in it and I made a mention of what Ibn Ziyad had done. He bit his lips (as a sign of extreme anger and annoyance) and struck at my thigh and said: I asked Abu Dharr as you have asked me, and he struck my thigh just as I have struck your thigh, and said: I asked the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) as you have asked me and he struck my thigh just as I have struck your thigh, and he (the Prophet) said: Observe prayer at its prescribed time, and if you can say prayer along with them. Do so, and do not say.” I have observed prayer and so I shall not pray.” (Muslim)

Furthermore, it has been narrated on the authority of Anas that the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) raided Khaibar. One morning we offered prayers in the darkness of early dawn (near Khaibar). Then the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) mounted (his horse). Abu Talha mounted his and I mounted behind Abu Talha on the same horse. The Prophet of Allah (peace be upon him) rode through the streets of Khaibar and (I rode so close to him) that my knee touched the thigh of the Prophet of Allah (peace be upon him). (Al-Bukhari)

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Scholars concluded that it is permissible to touch other men’s thighs while having a barrier.

 

It is prohibited to be sexually aroused by being touched by a male. In your case, neither you nor the person making massage intended or even took steps to sexually arouse you. Therefore, you are not sinful in this case. May Allah forgive all your sins.

Allah Almighty knows best.


assalaamalaykum.i have been married for the past 9yrs.my husband and i hv an age difference of 12yrs.my marriage is an arranged forced mrg.my parents dint gt my wish by either showing the groom photo or direct.after fixing everything they asked for my wish and i replied ur wish.my mrg finished within just one month of fixing the groom.at first i thought however parents choice will b better so my life will also bbetter.but then my problems started from the first month of my mrg.i was studying whn i gt married and i left my studies bcoz it was a big family and also support from my husband.whenever problem arises he never ever supported the one only thing he used to do is blame me for all the problems and he says that he is perfect.at first i thought the problem arises bcoz of his family after some yrs i come to know he is one responsible for the problems.i am a normal human being i do mistakes and i accept it but he always point out my mistakes and he will verbally abuse me and my family.he neither shouts nor gets anger but the words he uses against will make a person to commit suicide.so i bfor a 2yrs i asked kula from him but the higher persons calm me and again joined us together last year.its been 1yr nw nothing had changed this i time i am very sure to be seperated.ihv only hatred for him so i am interested in anything.i am afraid that if i am involving in anything by being with him will make a sinner.so i decided to get divorce.am i right or wrong...pls help me



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

There are valid reasons for recourse to divorce in Islam:

 

  1. Physical, mental, or emotional abuse or torture. When one of the spouses becomes abusive and inflicts physical, mental, or emotional torture, and is not willing to change by taking practical measures through therapy or counseling, then it is a valid reason for seeking divorce, for the Islamic principle states, “There shall be no inflicting or receiving of harm.”Zhulm(injustice) is not tolerated in Islam, regardless of who the perpetrator is.
  2. Failure to fulfill the objectives and purposes for which marriage was initiated. This can be utter incompatibility between the partners, which may be expressed by their irreconcilable differences in temperaments, likes, and dislikes.
  3. Marital infidelity. This can be a major cause for dissolution of marriage, for marriage is built on trust and confidence. Its main purpose is to preserve the chastity and modesty of those involved. Once this foundation is eroded and undermined and there is no chance to restore the same, then divorce is the way to go.
  4. Failure of the husband to provide. When the man, who is considered the provider and maintainer of the family, fails to shoulder his responsibilities and the wife decides that she cannot continue tolerating his shirking of responsibility, this is grounds for divorce.

In your case, If you have children, my sincere advice is that you do your best to maintain this relation for the sake of those children. You should, then, try to accept him with his faults and pay him with the best in terms of manners and good treatment. Your reward of patience will be of no limits. But if you are sure this relationship has already caused you to hate him, you will not be able to continue and that it will deeply affect your faith, you may then opt for divorce.

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This is explained in the Qur’an, “Divorce is twice. Then, either keep [her] in an acceptable manner or release [her] with good treatment. And it is not lawful for you to take anything of what you have given them unless both fear that they will not be able to keep [within] the limits of Allah. But if you fear that they will not keep [within] the limits of Allah, then there is no blame upon either of them concerning that by which she ransoms herself. These are the limits of Allah, so do not transgress them. And whoever transgresses the limits of Allah – it is those who are the wrongdoers.” (Al-Baqarah 2:230)

 

Before taking this step, I suggest you consult people of wisdom who are around you and your husband.

Allah Almighty knows best.


My (ex) husband delivered talaq on the 40th day after child birth. I was still bleeding until around 30 days after childbirth at which point it stopped and saw no blood for about 3 days. After the 3 day of no bleeding at all I bled heavily for 7 days (i believe this was my menses). On day 40 after childbirth and the last day of what I believe was my menses, my husband unknown to me pronounced talaq. I was unsure if I was pure at the exact moment he pronounced talaq and rushed to check. The sanitary product had some yellowish discharged but when I checked my private area I saw the tuhr (white discharge). Does the talaq count as such or is it bidah



The fortieth day is a part of child birth. Accordingly, this divorce is Bid`i. Your husband must revoke divorce and issue it again when you become pure, i.e. after the expiry of your menses. If you are not sure whether you were pure or not when he issued divorce, you must refer to the default rule, i.e. you were in a state of impurity which was certain. You cannot cancel the state of certainty by means of probability or conjecture.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Is it allowed in Islam to do a non Islamic banking job, as interest based banking system is Haram in Islam?



It is not permissible to work at any interest-based bank. Usurious interest is not only prohibited in itself but any act or work that helps on procuring, giving or even witnessing such a practice is prohibited.

The Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) cursed the one who consumes riba, the one who pays it, the one who witnesses it and the one who writes it down; the woman who does tattoos and the woman who has that done; and forbade wailing (in mourning), but he did not say that its doer is cursed. (Al-Nasa’i)

Allah Almighty knows best.


AsslammualaikumwrwbI got married to my husband when i was still 6 months pregnant. In the first place is our marriage sahih? Do we have to re-marry again after giving birth? Please advise. Thank you



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

It is not valid to get married while begin still infants. One of the constituent elements of the contract of marriage is the existence of a living groom and a bride. In this case you have to make the contract of marriage again by fulfilling other conditions including witnesses and a guardian in addition to a dowry.

Allah Almighty knows best.


Assalam-Allaykum... Is there a sanction in islam faith on women who have undergone ligation in order not to get pregnant again for the third time? because the first two children were born through a cesarean procedures?



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

In general, it is permissible to use birth control to prevent pregnancy, and it is (also) permitted to use the (various) forms of birth control. This is based on Jabir’s saying, “‘We used to practice coitus interruptus during the time of the Messenger of Allah when the Qur’an was being revealed.” (Ibn Majah) It is graded as an authentic hadith.

 

It is permissible to have one’s tubes tied (Tubal Ligation – Tubectomy) to prevent pregnancy as long as this procedure is temporary (reversible) and would not lead to a woman being permanently unable to conceive nor would this act cause any sort of life-threatening conditions.

 

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In addition, once the tubes have been re-opened, she would once again have the ability to conceive. In other than this scenario, it would not be permissible to perform the Tubectomy.

Allah Almighty knows best.


My question is that if a Muslim woman was to marry a Christian man and he is a beliver as stated, is it still forbidden or is it acceptable? Also my other question is, if the Christian man does not want to convert to Islam, but still wants to marry a Muslim woman, if he marries her the muslim way as in with witnesses and a Sheikh or Imam, that would make him Halal to her right?



A Muslim woman is absolutely prohibited to get married to a non-Muslim man whether he is an atheist, disbeliever, Jew or a Christian.

This has been explicitly mentioned in the Qur’an, “And do not marry polytheistic women until they believe. And a believing slave woman is better than a polytheist, even though she might please you. And do not marry polytheistic men [to your women] until they believe. And a believing slave is better than a polytheist, even though he might please you. Those invite [you] to the Fire, but Allah invites to Paradise and to forgiveness, by His permission. And He makes clear His verses to the people that perhaps they may remember.” (Al-Baqarah 2:221)

An exception for this rule has been given to a Muslim man to marry a Christian. This is mentioned in the Qur’an, “And [lawful in marriage are] chaste women from among the believers and chaste women from among those who were given the Scripture before you, when you have given them their due compensation, desiring chastity.” (An-Nisaa’ 4:5)

In case a woman marries a non-Muslim man, this marriage is null and void even if it is conducted by having witnesses because ‘witnesses’ are not the only condition for a valid marriage in Islam. Such a relationship is prohibited and is classified as adultery or fornication.

May Allah guide you to the straight path.

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Allah Almighty knows best.

 


Can one continue reading the Quran at Sunrise and Sunset? Or should one stop for a while at both these Times?



One can read the Quran at any time during the day or the night as long as one is in a state of ritual purity.

 

It is prohibited to offer supererogatory prayers during those times according to the hadith of the Prophet (peace be upon him) in which he is reported as: “forbidding praying after the morning prayer until the sun had risen, and praying after `Asr until the sun had set.” (Abu Dawud)

 

Scholars interpreted the word ‘praying’ to refer to supererogatory prayer which does not have a legal cause. An example of nafl prayers which has a legal cause is praying two rak`ahs upon entering a masjid which is recommended any time. This is according to the view of the Shafi`i scholars.

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Allah Almighty knows best.


Assalamualaikum, My Christian friend ask me that Allah will ransom Muslims from their sins by punishing the Jews and Christians from this hadees. Abu Musa; reported that Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) said: When it will be the Day of Resurrection Allah would deliver to every Muslim a Jew or a Christian and say: That is your RESCUE from Hell-Fire. (Sahih Muslim, Book 037, Number 6665) Is it true? Quran says one man can not bear the sin of another man. This hadees contradict with Quran. Pls give me clarification for above hadees.



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

We cannot fully understand the meaning of a Prophetic tradition without reading other relevant traditions which complete and clarify its meaning. Moreover, we should understand whether the phrases of such a tradition are used to convey their literal meaning or they are used metaphorically.

 

This is based on the context. The report of Abu Musa which is related in Muslim’s Sahih can be better interpreted by quoting the report of Abu Hurairah in which the Prophet (peace be upon him) has been reported as saying, “None will enter Paradise but will be shown the place he would have occupied in the (Hell) Fire if he had rejected faith, so that he may be more thankful; and none will enter the (Hell) Fire but will be shown the place he would have occupied in Paradise if he had faith, so that may be a cause of sorrow for him.”(Al-Bukhari)

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It means that each one is prepared for two seats; one in Hell and one in Heavens. When he rejects faith, he will be shown his other place in paradise which he would occupy in case he accepts faith. His position in heaven is inherited by a believer who accepted the religion of Allah.

 

Therefore, the word fidaa’ which is translated in Abu Musa’s hadith to mean ransom is not an accurate translation.

 

Jews and Christians who reject Islam after the advent of Islam will be shown their place in heavens but their place will be inherited by a Muslim who has accepted true faith.

 

It does not mean that entering Jannah is caused by admitting a Jew or a Christian to Hell. Allah shows people His bounties by saving them from a place that they would occupy in case His mercy does not shower them.

 

Moreover, Jews and Christians who believed in their true religions before the coming of Prophet Muhammad are destined for heavens according to the Quran. Jews and Christians who denied and rejected Prophet Muhammad and his message are destined to enter the Hellfire.

 

Allah Almighty knows best.


Salam..I pray 5 times a day but my husband sometimes wants to see me in makeup when he comes home. I would love to but i know if my wudu breaks I would have to take it all off and do wudoo again in order to pray. What does Islam saying about wearing makeup and what can women do if she breaks her wudoo and she has to do wudoo in order to pray. I also read about HALAL makeup and women can wear that, still pray and also do wudu. I am not really sure if thats even right thing to do



Wa `alaykum as-Salamu wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh.

 

As long as the makeup does not include any thing impure, it does not affect your prayers. You can pray while having it. If you like to renew your wudu’ while having makeup and it does make a barrier between your body and water such as nail polish, in such a case you have to remove this polish. One of the conditions for the validity of wudu’ is that water reaches the intended parts of the body.

Allah Almighty knows best.